Real ACCNS-AG Nursing Certification Exam Preparation | Unveiling the Benefits of PDF Dumps Questions and Answers
                     CER TSGRADE 
High Grade and Valuable Preparation Stuff 
 
   Nursing
  
AACN ACCNS-AG (Adult-Gero.)
 CNS Wellness through Acute Care
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Questions And Answers PDF Format:  
 
For More Information – Visit link below: 
https://www.certsgrade.com/ 
 
Version = Product 
 
 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
Latest Version: 6.0  
 
Question: 1 
   
Which of the following clinical findings may be seen on chest radiograph for a patient with a suspected 
pulmonary embolism? 
 
A. Atelectasis. 
B. Normal chest radiograph. 
C. Cardiomegaly. 
D. All of the above. 
 
Answer: D     
 
Explanation: 
Cardiomegaly may be seen on chest x-ray in up to 50% of patients with a diagnosis of 
pulmonary embolism. Atelectasis is another common finding. with up to 69% of patients with a 
pulmonary embolism showing atelectasis on chest x-ray. Up to 22% of patients with pulmonary 
embolism will have a normal chest x-ray. 
Question: 2 
   
Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to utilize to differentiate asthma 
from other respiratory illnesses such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? 
 
A. Chest x-ray. 
B. Pulmonary function tests. 
C. Electrocardiography. 
D. Computed tomography scan of chest. 
 
Answer: B     
 
Explanation: 
While chest x-ray, pulmonary function tests, electrocardiography, and a complete blood cell 
count may be used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in the older adult patient, pulmonary function 
tests are the most useful diagnostic test in confirming a diagnosis of asthma and differentiating 
between other respiratory diagnoses such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Chest x-ray 
usually results in negative findings for the asthmatic patient: however, other abnormalities may be 
detected. Electrocardiography may be utilized to determine the presence of underlying cardiac 
disease and assist the healthcare practitioner with ordering the appropriate medication if a 
diagnosis of asthma is made. Computed tomography (CT) scanning may be useful for patients with 
recurring symptoms or chronic disease. 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
Question: 3 
   
The CNS is seeing a 72-year-old patient in their primary care office. The patient was diagnosed with 
asthma 1 year ago and is now presenting with wheezing, chest tightness, and cough. Upon interviewing 
the patient, she mentions that she recently started a "few new medications." Which of the following 
new medications that the patient is taking may be contributing to the exacerbation of her asthma 
symptoms? 
 
A. Lisinopril. 
B. Doxepin. 
C. Pantoprazole. 
D. Losartan. 
 
Answer: A     
 
Explanation: 
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as Lisinopril, may exacerbate asthma 
symptoms, most commonly producing cough. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors and tricyclic 
antidepressants used in the treatment of depression have the potential to interact with 
corticosteroids and worsen depression. Angiotensin II receptor blockers do not have the same 
effect as ACE inhibitors on asthma symptoms and are the preferred treatment option along with 
calcium channel blockers for asthmatic patients with hypertension. Pantoprazole does not produce 
or contribute to the exacerbation of asthma symptoms. 
Question: 4 
   
The CNS is performing a history and physical on a 70-year-old patient who is experiencing dyspnea on 
exertion. The patient states that in addition to her shortness of breath, she has been experiencing heart 
palpitations, fatigue, and heat intolerance. Which of the following potential diagnoses could be a 
contributing factor in the patient's dyspnea? 
 
A. Anemia. 
B. Psychogenic dyspnea. 
C. Aortic stenosis. 
D. Thyroid disease. 
 
Answer: D     
 
Explanation: 
There are multiple diseases and conditions that can cause dyspnea to occur, including 
cardiac and pulmonary diseases, anemia, thyroid disease, and psychogenic causes. Palpitations, 
generalized fatigue, and heat intolerance are symptoms that are indicative of thyrotoxicosis. Pallor, 
fatigue, and evidence of blood loss indicate anemia. Chest pain, syncope, and fatigue may indicate 
aortic stenosis. Psychogenic dyspnea usually occurs at rest and may be accompanied by peripheral 
and periorbital paresthesias. 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
Question: 5 
   
The World Health Organization (WHO) classifies patients with pulmonary hypertension (PH) into 5 
groups based upon etiology. Patients in group 1 have which of the following types of pulmonary 
hypertension? 
 
A. Patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to hypoxemia. 
B. Patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to left-sided heart disease. 
C. Patients with idiopathic arterial hypertension. 
D. Patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to thromboembolic occlusion of the 
pulmonary vasculature. 
 
Answer: C     
 
Explanation: 
WHO group 1 patients are defined as patients with idiopathic arterial hypertension. Group 2 
patients are defined as patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to left-sided heart disease. 
Group 3 patients are defined as patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to hypoxemia or 
chronic lung disease. Patients with group 4 pulmonary hypertension have pulmonary hypertension 
secondary to thromboembolic occlusion of the pulmonary vasculature. Patients in group 5 have 
pulmonary hypertension due to unknown or unclear mechanisms. 
Question: 6 
   
The most common risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea is: 
 
A. male gender. 
B. obesity. 
C. smoking. 
D. craniofacial abnormalities. 
 
Answer: B     
 
Explanation: 
There are multiple risk factors that may increase the likelihood of developing obstructive 
sleep apnea. Obesity is the most common risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea in both males and 
females. Male gender, smoking craniofacial and upper airway abnormalities, increasing age, and 
menopause are other risk factors. In addition, there are medical conditions that may also increase 
risk, including heart failure, hypothyroidism, and renal disease. 
Question: 7 
   
The CNS is rounding on a medical surgical unit and is seeing a 74-year-old male patient who was recently 
diagnosed with aspiration pneumoni 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
a. An anaerobic bacterium is the suspected pathogen. Which of the following treatment options would 
NOT be considered? 
A. Clindamycin. 
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate. 
C. Metronidazole plus amoxicillin. 
D. Moxifloxacin. 
 
Answer: D     
 
Explanation: 
Clindamycin is the drug of choice for first-line therapy in the treatment of aspiration 
pneumonia caused by anaerobic bacteria. Other alternate treatment options include Amoxicillin- 
clavulanate or metronidazole plus amoxicillin or penicillin G. Moxifloxacin may be an effective 
treatment} however, it is an agent that is not preferred as first-line therapy in the treatment of 
aspiration pneumonia caused by anaerobic bacteria. 
Question: 8 
   
The most common site of aspiration offoreign bodies is the: 
 
A. right main stem bronchus. 
B. oropharynx. 
C. trachea. 
D. left main stem bro 
 
Answer: A     
 
Explanation: 
Treatment of aspiration of foreign bodies is highly dependent on the size of the foreign body 
its location. The right main stem bronchus is the most common site of foreign body aspiration. 
Foreign bodies lodged in the oropharynx or trachea are likely to cause acute asphyxiation, 
depending on the size of the foreign body. Foreign bodies are more likely to be aspirated in the 
lower lobes, causing distal bronchial obstruction. 
Question: 9 
   
Which of the following is an indication for lung volume reduction surgery for a patient with 
emphysema? 
 
A. Age 65 years and younger. 
B. Longer than 12 months of smoking cessation. 
C. Inability to complete a 6- to 10-week pulmonary rehabilitation program. 
D. Marked airflow obstruction on spirometry. 
 
Answer: D     
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
 
Explanation: 
Indications for lung volume reduction surgery for patients with emphysema include (but are 
not limited to) age younger than 7 5 years, severe dyspnea that persists after medical therapy and 
maximal pulmonary rehabilitation, and marked airflow obstruction on spirometry. Inability to 
complete a 6- to 10-week pulmonary rehabilitation program is a contraindication for lung volume 
reduction surgery in patients with emphysema. 
Question: 10 
   
Which of the following is a treatment-related predictor of mortality in acute respiratory distress 
syndrome (ARDS)? 
 
A. Negative fluid balance. 
B. Early intubation. 
C. Platelet transfusion. 
D. Treatment with glucocorticoids prior to development of ARDS. 
 
Answer: D     
 
Explanation: 
Treatment-related predictors of mortality in acute respiratory distress syndrome include a 
positive fluid balance, late intubation, packed red blood cell transfusion, and glucocorticoid 
treatment prior to the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome. In addition, patients 
with acute respiratory distress syndrome admitted to intensive care units without mandated care 
by an intensivist has shown to increase mortality risk. 
Question: 11 
   
Pulmonary interstitial emphysema is most likely to occur in patients with which condition? 
 
A. Interstitial pneumonia. 
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. 
C. Non-small cell lung cancer. 
D. Prior intubation/mechanical ventilation. 
 
Answer: A     
 
Explanation: 
Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) may occur in patients with acute respiratory 
distress syndrome or mechanically ventilated patients. PIE is characterized by the dissection of air 
through the alveolar walls into the interstitial tissues, causing inflammation. Pulmonary interstitial 
emphysema is most commonly seen in patients with usual interstitial pneumonia. There may also 
be a correlation with prior ventilation and/or lung biopsy and the development of PIE. 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
Question: 12 
   
The CNS is working in the emergency department when a 60-year-old patient arrives after a motor 
vehicle accident. The patient experienced blunt thoracic trauma as a result of the accident and 
undergoes a CT scan of the chest. A diagnosis of occult pneumothorax (6 mm in length) is made based 
on the CT scan results. The patient is hemodynamically stable and is not experiencing any type of 
respiratory distress or compromise. Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate for 
this patient? 
 
A. Placement of chest tube. 
B. Observation. 
C. Positive pressure ventilation. 
D. Surgical thoracotomy. 
 
Answer: B     
 
Explanation: 
Research supports treating asymptomatic patients with occult pneumothorax less than 8 mm 
in length with observation alone. In the event that the patient becomes symptomatic or the 
pneumothorax enlarges, placement of a chest tube would be indicated. Positive-pressure 
ventilation may contribute to the expansion of the pneumothorax and should only be initiated in 
patients with traumatic pneumothorax with a chest tube in place. 
Question: 13 
   
Which of the following anatomic changes would be expected for a patient who has undergone a 
pneumonectomy? 
 
A. Rapid accumulation of fluid into the post-pneumonectomy space. 
B. Obliteration of the post-pneumonectomy space. 
C. Shifting of the mediastinum away from the post-pneumonectomy space. 
D. Elevation of the hemidiaphragm. 
 
Answer: D     
 
Explanation: 
Anatomical changes for patients undergoing a pneumonectomy include elevation of the 
hemidiaphragm, shifting of the mediastinum towards the post-pneumonectomy and hyperinflation 
ofthe remaining lung. Rapid accumulation of fluid into the post-pneumonectomy space may indicate 
hemorrhage or infection. Obliteration of the post-pneumonectomy space rarely occurs with 
most patients having residual fluid or air within the space. 
Question: 14 
   
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
Which of the following conditions develops in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and 
causes development of cyanosis? 
 
A. Cor pulmonale. 
B. Secondary polycythemia. 
C. Fibrosis. 
D. Mucous hypersecretion. 
 
Answer: B     
 
Explanation: 
As compensation for the decreased amount of oxygen in chronic obstructive pulmonary 
disease, the body makes extra red blood cells. This is known as secondary polycythemia and results 
in an excess number of circulating red blood cells. The excess red blood cells thicken the blood and 
clog small blood vessels. This results in the development of cyanosis. Cor pulmonale occurs when 
the right ventricle enlarges and thickens. Mucus hypersecretion and tissue destruction in chronic 
obstructive pulmonary disease cause airway inflammation and fibrosis. 
Question: 15 
   
Which of the following familial/congenital conditions is not associated with the development of central 
diabetes insipidus (CDI)? 
 
A. Wolfram syndrome. 
B. Congenital hypopituitarism. 
C. Familial central diabetes insipidus. 
D. Bartter syndrome. 
 
Answer: D     
 
Explanation: 
There are several familial/congenital conditions that are associated with the development of 
central diabetes insipidus (CDI). They include familial central diabetes insipidus, Wolfram 
syndrome, congenital hypopituitarism, and septo-optic dysplasia. Bartter syndrome is a congenital 
condition that is associated with the development of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
  
 
For More Information – Visit link below: 
http://www.certsgrade.com/ 
 
PRODUCT FEATURES 
 
  100% Money Back Guarantee 
 90 Days Free updates 
  Special Discounts on Bulk Orders 
  Guaranteed Success  50,000 Satisfied Customers 
  100% Secure Shopping 
 Privacy Policy 
  Refund Policy 
Discount Coupon Code: CERTSGRADE10 
 
 
 
Visit us athttps://www.certsgrade.com/pdf/aacn-accns-ag-adult-gero/
 
Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)