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DHA_Anesthesiologist
25 Sample DHA Prometric Exam Questions
Anesthesiologist | Practice Questions with Answers
Note: These are original practice questions for study purposes. They are not recalled or official DHA exam
questions.
1. A patient under general anesthesia develops a sudden rise in end-tidal CO■, tachycardia, muscle
rigidity, and hyperthermia. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Ephedrine
B. Dantrolene
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine
Answer: B. Dantrolene
2. Which regional anesthetic technique is most appropriate for cesarean delivery when a rapid,
dense block is required?
A. Spinal anesthesia
B. Local infiltration
C. Bier block
D. Intercostal block
Answer: A. Spinal anesthesia
3. A patient develops severe hypotension immediately after induction of general anesthesia. Which
drug is commonly used as a first-line vasopressor when the heart rate is adequate or elevated?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Propranolol
C. Lidocaine
D. Furosemide
Answer: A. Phenylephrine
4. What is the primary mechanism of action of propofol?
A. NMDA receptor agonism
B. GABA-A receptor potentiation
C. Dopamine receptor blockade
D. Sodium-channel activation
Answer: B. GABA-A receptor potentiation
5. Which monitoring method provides the most direct continuous assessment of ventilation during
general anesthesia?
A. Pulse oximetry
B. ECG
C. Capnography
D. Temperature monitoring
Answer: C. Capnography
6. A patient with a difficult airway is awake and cooperative. Which approach can help maintain
spontaneous ventilation during airway management?
A. Awake fiberoptic intubation
B. Immediate deep sedation without airway plan
C. Blind nasal intubation in every case
D. Routine cricothyrotomy
Answer: A. Awake fiberoptic intubation
7. Which inhalational anesthetic has the lowest blood-gas solubility and therefore allows relatively
rapid changes in anesthetic depth?
A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane
Answer: C. Desflurane
8. What is the most important immediate treatment for local anesthetic systemic toxicity with
seizures and cardiovascular instability?
A. IV lipid emulsion therapy
B. Oral activated charcoal
C. Mannitol
D. Vitamin K
Answer: A. IV lipid emulsion therapy
9. Which neuromuscular blocker is commonly preferred for rapid-sequence induction because of its
rapid onset?
A. Succinylcholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Cisatracurium
D. Vecuronium
Answer: A. Succinylcholine
10. A patient remains apneic after administration of a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker.
Which medication can reverse its effect by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase?
A. Neostigmine
B. Dantrolene
C. Ketamine
D. Midazolam
Answer: A. Neostigmine
11. Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic and also provides significant analgesia?
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Thiopental
D. Dexmedetomidine
Answer: A. Ketamine
12. What is the main advantage of etomidate for induction in a hemodynamically unstable patient?
A. Strong bronchodilation only
B. Relative cardiovascular stability
C. Prolonged analgesia
D. Complete muscle paralysis
Answer: B. Relative cardiovascular stability
13. A patient receiving opioids develops respiratory depression and reduced consciousness. Which
drug is used for opioid reversal?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Sugammadex
Answer: B. Naloxone
14. Which drug specifically reverses the effects of rocuronium and vecuronium by encapsulating
the neuromuscular blocker?
A. Neostigmine
B. Sugammadex
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine
Answer: B. Sugammadex
15. During anesthesia, the ECG shows a sudden broad-complex tachycardia with hemodynamic
instability. What is the immediate management?
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Oral beta blocker
C. Observation only
D. IV calcium for every case
Answer: A. Synchronized cardioversion
16. Which clinical sign is most suggestive of a high spinal/neuraxial block?
A. Hypertension and tachycardia
B. Severe hypotension with respiratory difficulty
C. Isolated fever
D. Increased urine output
Answer: B. Severe hypotension with respiratory difficulty
17. Which airway device is placed above the glottis and can be used as a rescue airway?
A. Laryngeal mask airway
B. Nasogastric tube
C. Chest tube
D. Arterial catheter
Answer: A. Laryngeal mask airway
18. A patient develops bronchospasm during anesthesia. Which inhaled medication is commonly
used for acute bronchodilation?
A. Salbutamol
B. Furosemide
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Adenosine
Answer: A. Salbutamol
19. Which acid-base disturbance is most directly suggested by persistent hypoventilation during
anesthesia?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis only
Answer: A. Respiratory acidosis
20. What is the main purpose of preoxygenation before induction of general anesthesia?
A. Increase functional residual oxygen reserve
B. Reduce blood pressure
C. Produce muscle paralysis
D. Prevent postoperative nausea in all patients
Answer: A. Increase functional residual oxygen reserve
21. Which opioid is commonly used for intraoperative analgesia because of its rapid onset and short
duration?
A. Fentanyl
B. Morphine
C. Methadone
D. Codeine
Answer: A. Fentanyl
22. A patient develops postoperative nausea and vomiting. Which medication is commonly used for
prophylaxis or treatment?
A. Ondansetron
B. Protamine
C. Heparin
D. Mannitol
Answer: A. Ondansetron
23. Which measurement is most useful for assessing the degree of neuromuscular blockade and
recovery before extubation?
A. Train-of-four monitoring
B. Blood glucose alone
C. ECG axis
D. Urine specific gravity
Answer: A. Train-of-four monitoring
24. In an adult with severe hypovolemia, which crystalloid is commonly used for initial intravascular
volume replacement?
A. Isotonic crystalloid
B. Sterile water IV
C. Hypertonic dextrose as routine first-line fluid
D. Distilled water
Answer: A. Isotonic crystalloid
25. Which postoperative finding requires urgent airway assessment and intervention?
A. Mild thirst
B. Stridor with respiratory distress
C. Mild incisional pain
D. Slight drowsiness immediately after anesthesia
Answer: B. Stridor with respiratory distress
Study tip: Use these questions for revision of airway management, pharmacology, regional anesthesia,
monitoring, emergency management, and perioperative care. Always verify clinical practice against current
guidelines and local DHA requirements.
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